LECTURE 4.2

A short read

FACING THE HIDDEN TRUTH BEHIND THE DOOR

2The Bible- thought is scripture, yet has been infiltrated and corrupted
(trivial doctrinal corruption)

Christendom strongly believes that the Bible (BBPPO) is not only all-scripture-inclusive but is also infallible (i.e. is the 100% uncorrupted word of God). Well, we saw in Step 1 how the Bible spoke for itself letting us know that there are many inspired scriptures out there which were nevertheless left out of its compilation, but here we’re going to see exactly how true the church's claim of the Bible’s infallibility really is.

Again, we’ll let the alive Bible speak for itself and hear what it has to say about this.


4 TYPES OF ERRORS IN THE BIBLE


1ERROR OF OMISSION

  1. Two verses of the book of Mark [Mar 9:44, 46] in the more scholarly KJV are removed on two occasions from the less scholarly NIV. Yahushua/Jesus said these words 3 good times to make sure that he was clearly understood. The NIV removed the verses twice apparently to keep from offending the reader with the words of God. This should tell the Christian that something is wrong.
  2. The entire verse of [Joh 5:4] as seen in the more scholarly KJV is gone from the less scholarly NIV. Without the verse, the rest of the content doesn’t make any sense. This should tell the Christian that something is wrong.
  3. This verse of the book of Acts [Acts 8:37] as seen in the more scholarly KJV is removed from the less scholarly NIV, and without it, the passage teaches baptismal regeneration, i.e. a doctrine that says persons get saved by being baptized in water rather than by believing in Yahushua/Jesus. Notice that the confession of [Acts 8:37] (KJV) matches [Rom 10:9-10] (KJV), so leaving the verse alone shows you that salvation is through Yahushua/Jesus and not through baptism. Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?

    Omission errors are mostly present in the modern translations of the Bible, most especially in the NIV and not really in the older translations like the KJV.

2ERRORS OF MISTRANSLATION

  1. In [Acts 4:27, 30] as seen in the more scholarly KJV, the less scholarly NIV attacks Yahushua/Jesus’ deity by saying that Yahushua/Jesus was God’s servant rather than his son [Acts 4:27, 30] (NIV). There is a strong difference between those two terms when applying them to Yahushua/Jesus. The use of son speaks of his deity and servant doesn’t. Well, [Acts 4:25] and [Acts 4:26] (KJV) determines the context of the discussion and they’re a quotation from [Psa 2:1-2] (KJV), but in [Psa 2:7] and [Acts 4:12] (KJV), we see that the psalmists reference is to God’s son, so why in the world did the NIV translators call Yahushua/Jesus God’s servant here if the translators didn’t have a diabolic agenda? This should tell the Christian that something is wrong.
  2. Was and Bara: the word translated as "was" in [Gen 1:2] is actually "became" and not "was", the Hebrew word translated into was is hayah #H1961 as seen in Strong’s concordance and it denotes a condition different from a former condition as rightly used in [Gen 19:26]. The translation of hayah from meaning "was" to meaning "became" in [Gen 1:2] completely changes the meaning of that verse a great deal, the secret the matrix does not want you to know is that God never really created the earth initially in chaos (as we have been indoctrinated to think) but in perfection of which later became choatic. Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?
  3. The Greek word Pascha #G3957 is translated Passover which agrees with the translation of Pascha being Passover as found in [Mt 26:2] and in other verses, but this word is later strangely changed to Easter in [Acts 12:4]. As you’ll learn later on, Easter and Passover are not the same festival events but two different ones. But this little error nevertheless has carried a great portion of Christendom into idolatry as they observe Easter (the festival that actually marks the worship of spring and the spring goddess- Ashtoreth) thinking they are observing Passover (the festival that indeed marks the death of the Messiah). Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?

    Mistranslation errors are mostly primarily found in the older version of the Bible like the KJV and are mostly copied into the modern translations, some of them are due to the fact that the meanings of the Hebrew words as they applied to the times when they were used in the writing of scripture were not clearly known, so Bible translators substituted these words with those they felt reflect what these Hebrew words mean as was known during the time of translation.

3ERRORS OF ADDITION

  1. The Latin Bible (the vulgate) is a Roman Catholic Bible translation created by the man named Jerome in 338 AD just before the creation of the KJV in 1611, and this vulgate translation was based on a corrupted Greek text. And because the KJV made use of the Catholic’s English New Testament rendition called the douay-rheims in addition to two other source materials to produce the KJ translation we have today, many addition errors which scholars believe the Catholic Church introduced into the douay-rheims to support their many unscriptural doctrines were said to be copied into the KJV ignorantly. These additions are said to be [Acts 9:5-6; 10:21; Heb 12:20]. Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?

    The addition errors found in the English Bibles today were mostly copied ignorantly into the older versions of the Bible like the KJV. Due to this reason, more recent translations which consider these older translations or consider the manuscripts from which they had been created also copied these addition errors.
  2. No language can be perfectly translated word for word into another language without them losing some meaning. Hebrew and Greek idioms often do not come through clearly into literal English. Thus beginning in 1560 with the Geneva Bible, translators introduced the practice of adding italicized words which they felt clarified scripture and made it easier for modern readers to understand what the original language was stating for a particular verse. The 1954 king James translation did the same thing. Basically, italicized words in the Bible tell us that these words have been introduced and added and are not really present in the original text.

    These italicized words which were actually meant to help us understand the Bible more nevertheless have unfortunately been taken advantage of and misused by evil men to mislead us. So if words can be present in our English Bibles today which are firstly: nowhere found in the Hebrew manuscripts and secondly, whose meanings can be and have been twisted to give us a wrong understanding of the scripture being interpreted, how then can one say that the Bible is infallible and contains the 100% uncorrupted word of God only?
  3. If you are a Bible reader, you would have come across verses where some words which had been previously written in small letter, later mysteriously appear written in capital letters, let’s give just one example. Jesus in [Mt 1:1] and JESUS in [Mt 1:21]. The church has never bothered to ask why this is the case. This is another practice the Bible translators introduced to indicate that a particular word written in capital letters IS NOT ACTUALLY FOUND IN THE HEBREW MANUSCRIPT (it appears that the word Jesus is nowhere found in the Hebrew Bible. The Hebrew word translated as Jesus is indeed Yahushua. Joshua by the way and not Jesus is the rightful English form of the Hebrew name Yahushua). So if words in capital letters can be present in our English Bibles today which are firstly: nowhere found in the Hebrew manuscripts and secondly, whose meanings can be and have been twisted to give us a wrong understanding of the scripture being interpreted, how then can one say that the Bible is infallible and contains only the 100% uncorrupted word of God?

4NUMBER ERRORS

  1. In [1 Ki 4:26], it says Solomon had 40,000 stalls of horses and 12,000 horsemen, but in [2 Ch 9:25], Solomon had 4,000 stalls of horses and 12,000 horsemen. Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?
  2. In [2 Sa 24:13], seven years of famine was declared but it became 3 in [1 Ch 21:11-12]. Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?
  3. Did Michal die childless as it says in [2 Sa 6:23] or did she have 5 sons as [2 Sa 21:8] says?
  4. How old was Jehoiachin when he began to reign, 18 [2 Ki 24:8] or 8 [2 Ch 36:9]?
  5. How old was Ahaziah when he began to reign, 22 [2 Ki 8:26] or 42 [2 Ch 22:2]?
  6. When did Basha die, [1 Ki 16:6-8] or [2 Ch 16:1]? Are we still sticking to the thought that the Bible is indeed infallible?

The Bible (BBPPO) has said it by its own words that it does not contain the 100% uncorrupted word of God only. Actually, it couldn’t possibly contain only the infallible word of God seeing that it was compiled by imperfect men like you and I. This truth shouldn’t be hard to see except someone is trying really hard to make his or her belief bigger than what it really is, so that one becomes imperceptive to what reason (or even ones very own belief) is saying.

END OF LECTURE 4.2

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