A lenghty read
FACING THE HIDDEN TRUTH BEHIND THE DOOR
This lecture is going to be a little bit lengthy because there are just so many hidden secrets behind the Bible door. So be patient.
3The Bible- though is scripture, yet has been infiltrated and corrupted
(crucial doctrinal corruption)
Casual observation and study of the Bible seem to reveal doctrinal errors but careful observation and study of it further classifies these observed doctrinal errors into 2 categories:
- Doctrinal errors arising from a desperate infiltration and corruption of the Bible text.
- Doctrinal errors arising from a mere misinterpretation and misunderstanding of the Bible.
Since we’re supposed to be treating true doctrinal errors that arise from the actual corruption of the Bible text, we’re then supposed to omit the second category of doctrinal errors from our discussion, but it would very much be helpful to use this opportunity to discuss them as well so as to clarify them.
8 major cases which are either actual doctrinal errors or which only appear to be doctrinal errors will be discussed here and briefly studied to determine if they are errors by text corruption or errors by text misinterpretation. The number of doctrinal errors in the Bible is not limited to just 8 actually but these 8 have been chosen because they are the ones that can rid or almost rid one of his or her salvation if they’re strongly believed and not denounced.
Not many readers notice but there are actually 2 gospels preached in the Bible:
- One with laws and
- One without laws.
Yahushua/Jesus is the endorser of the gospel with laws.
He asked us not to think that he has come to abolish the law for he has only come to fulfill it [Mt 5:17], fulfilling a thing is the completing and perfecting of that thing and not the doing away of the thing. Just like conscience completes and perfects intelligence to create wisdom without doing away with intelligence, in like manner does the mission of Yahushua/Jesus- without doing away with the law, completes and perfects the law to create a new covenant bound by the fulfilled law- the law of love [Rom 13:8; 13:10].
The law which was later transformed to the law of love spoken about here refers to the one handed to Moses by God- commonly called the Mosaic Law. It is a law of 613 commandments but summarized and compressed into the very famous 10 commandments. The Mosaic Law was given to the Israelites to help them keep their salvation [Jas 2:14-26; 1 Jn 2:3-6], while the law has a lot of commandments included within it, we’ll only be focusing on just 4 central ones:
- The sabbath law.
- The dietary laws.
- The feast laws.
- And the law of circumcision.
The psalmist of the Old Covenant said that the law converts a soul [Psa 19:7]. Yahushua/Jesus of the New Covenant in [Mt 5:17] taught a gospel with laws and that is why his Apostles yet kept the law even after his death [Acts 21:17-2]. Notice that even in the new covenant, the Christ-like Apostles yet kept:
- The Saturday Sabbath [Acts 13:42, 44; 17:2; 18:4]
- The dietary laws [Acts 10:14]
- The feasts [Acts 18:21]
- And the law of circumcision [Acts 21:21-24].
They obviously prove that the law had not indeed been abolished in the new covenant like Christendom wants us to believe.
Paul is the endorser of the gospel without a law.
- Paul said that the law is the ministry of death and it kills a soul [2 Co 3:7; Rom 8:2].
- Regardless of what Yahushua/Jesus said in [Mat 4:4; Joh 14:15], Paul says that Christ has freed us from the curse of the law [Gal 3:13], that anyone who’s under the law is under a curse [Gal 3:10], and that we’re no longer under it [Gal 3:24-25].
- He says the law has been done away with [2 Co 3:11]. That the Old Testament has been done away with [2 Co 3:13-16] and so circumcision availeth nothing [Gal 5:1-6]. And that the sabbaths, feasts and dietary laws shall not be used to judge anyone [Col 2:16-17].
- The Lord proved to Peter that he only used clean and unclean animals symbolically to refer to Jews and Gentiles in [Acts 10:9-48] so that the entire law of which the dietary law is a member remains valid even after the death of Yahushua/Jesus, but Paul yet contradicts this true doctrine saying nothing is unclean of itself [Rom 14:14]. That everything is pure to the pure [Tit 1:15], that we’ll all be fine if we eat all unclean food in faith [Rom 14:23], and thanksgiving [1 Ti 4:4].
- You are not the only one who thinks Paul really did preach a gospel without a law, for the Jews who lived in Paul’s time and knew him in person also concluded the same [Acts 21:28, 18:13]. We can see that this is why 40 Jewish men made a vow to kill him [Acts 23:21].
Well a gospel with laws and one without laws cannot co-exist at the same time. It is either the gospel of Yahushua/Jesus or the gospel of Paul. This is the doctrinal error of the gospel. Wisdom has not shown that this doctrinal error is one which has arisen from the incorrect interpretation of the scripture but from a desperate infiltration and corruption of the Bible which being scripture- is supposed to be harmonious.
3 Simple questions for the church about the law
- If the law has been abolished, what then did Yahushua/Jesus mean when he said in [Mt 5:17] think not that I have come to abolish the law?
- Scripture says that the Father will magnify the law [Isa 42:21]; can the church explain to us exactly what it means to magnify the law?
- If the Mosaic Law has been abolished giving way to the new non Mosaic Law of grace, how then can we say that God is the same yesterday, today and forever?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answers on my email or Facebook inboxes.
The word apostle comes from the Greek word "apostolos" which means- "to be sent". An apostle is someone sent by God to do something, but what exactly? That will soon be revealed. Not many Bible readers notice that there are two types of Apostleship described in the Bible:
- An apostle by God’s qualification and
- An apostle by self-appointment.
Peter is the endorser of Apostleship by God’s qualification
Peter- the disciple on whose proclaimed faith the church was built is the endorser of the apostleship by God’s qualification, for he personally gave the qualification for anyone to be appointed as an Apostle. That person must have walked with Yahushua/Jesus beginning from his baptism up to his ascension into heaven. [Acts 1:21-22]. Actually, this qualification is only an alternative and backup option to appointing Apostles and is not supposed to exist in the first place for Yahushua/Jesus was meant to personally hand-pick his Apostles (just like he did)- not man choosing them for him. And when he chose them, he decided he wanted just 12 [Mt 10:1-4; Mar 3:14-19; Luk 6:13-16]. You’ll discover that the total number of Apostles had to be fixed at 12 for 4 reasons:
- Because there are only 12 tribes of Israel, not 11 or 13 [Gen 49:1-28]
- This is why the New Jerusalem has 12 gates with the names of the 12 tribes of Israel written on them and 12 Angels guarding the gates, not 11 or 13 gates and Angels [Rev 21:12]
- This is why there are 12 thrones reserved for the 12 Apostles after their resurrection, not 11 or 13 thrones [Mt 19:28]
- This is why the walls of the New Jerusalem has 12 foundations with the names of the 12 Apostles written on them, not 11 or 13 foundations [Rev 21:14].
There are only 12 tribes of Israel to be represented and judged by 12 people [Mt 19:28; Luk 22:29-30] so that the church is therefore built around the Lord’s chosen- his first born whom he made a covenant with.
It is this revelation that made us perfect our understanding of who an Apostle is. He is one who is sent by God not to do whatever but to specifically build the church. Because God’s chosen consists of 12 tribes of Jacob, an Apostle was used to represent each tribe making the number of Apostles fixed at 12. So according to Yahushua/Jesus, while there can be many disciples and followers, there can only be 12 Apostles [Mt 22:14].
One apostle becomes lost
But later on, after Yahushua/Jesus had died, Judas lost his position as an Apostle and there was no physical Yahushua/Jesus to replace Judas by his hand-picking so the alternative and backup option became necessary.
For the 4 reasons mentioned above, the disciples knew to replace Judas and re-establish the number of Apostles back to 12 again which is why they sought for one to take Judas’ position, proving that Judas’ position was of course not to be left unmanned [Acts 1:25]. This is why Peter- the head Apostle was given the inspiration to declare the qualification for appointing Apostles.
Paul is the endorser of apostleship by self-appointment
There is yet another type of Apostleship, one that is by self-appointment rather than by the physical Yahushua/Jesus or the qualification of Peter. The endorser of this kind of apostleship is Paul [1 Co 9:1; Rom 1:5].
- He calls himself an apostle to the Gentiles [Rom 11:13]: he doesn’t only contradict himself by doing this [Col 3:11] but further annuls the aim of apostleship by qualification where Apostles are not assigned to a divided church consisting of Gentiles (not bloodline Israelites) and Jews (bloodline Israelites) but to one spirit-church of all believers (whether bloodline Jew or Gentile [Acts 11:1-18]). This statement of Paul also contradicts the scripture where God declared that by the mouth of Peter will the Gentiles (not bloodline Israelites) hear the gospel [Acts 15:7].
- He describes disciples as Apostles and uses the term freely [Rom 16:7; 1 Co 4:9]. This contradicts [Mt 22:14] which says that many disciples are called but few Apostles are chosen insinuating that the membership of the office of apostleship had a fixed number. He used the term Apostle as if there is no limit and bound to its number [1 Co 9:5; Gal 1:19] and therefore consequently had a crew of Apostles [1 Th 2:6].
- He once admitted that he is not seen as an Apostle by others [1 Co 9:2], as if there was a proof of qualification to be one- one which they felt he didn’t meet up to.
- He calls Yahushua/Jesus the Apostle [Heb 3:1]. Though this is in a way right, it is yet not proper. Paul is able to do this though because he doesn’t acknowledge the meaning of an Apostle as thought by Yahushua/Jesus and the 12 Apostles to be one sent to build the church, but sees the word as anyone who is sent by God to do whatsoever.
Now, apostleship cannot all at the same time entail the sending by God of 12 persons who have walked with Yahushua/Jesus from his baptism to his ascension to build the church, and also the sending by God of a limitless number of people who don’t have to have walked with nor heard and seen Yahushua/Jesus to go and do whatever God has asked them to do. It is either one or the other. This is the doctrinal error of Apostleship.
Wisdom has shown that this doctrinal error is not one arising from a misinterpretation of the Bible text but one deliberately introduced into the Bible to cause confusion and because God is not the author of confusion [1 Co 14:33], this error therefore has to be coming from someone who is against God. Who precisely is this person you may ask? This would be answered as you stay with The Academy.
A Simple question for the church about Apostleship
- If after the death of the Messiah, an Apostle could only be selected by the qualifications set down by the head Apostle- Peter [Mt 16:18], why is it then, that we take people who never even met Yahushua/Jesus today as Apostles? Or don’t we recognize the authority placed upon Peter by Yahushua/Jesus himself?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answer on my email or Facebook inboxes.
Not many Christians know that there existed two different calendar systems used in Yahushua/Jesus’ day, the proof of this can be best elaborated in 7 steps:
- The Messiah did eat the Passover before his death:
- The Messiah ate his Passover before the Jews ate theirs:
- The next sabbath day just after the Messiah's death was not a Saturday:
- The Messiah died in the midst of the week:
- The Messiah spent 3 days and 3 nights in the grave:
- The Messiah rose before the dawn of Sunday:
- The women only had one free day to annoint the Messiah's body before his ressurection:
The Passover feast is a feast that is to be held once a year on the 14th day of the Jewish first month- Nissan [Lev 23:5]. Contrary to what the church says, the last supper was a Passover meal [Mt 26:17; Luk 22:8; Mt 26:18; 26:19; Luk 22:15]. Hence column 1-3/row 1 on "the Messiah’s last days" table below.
Most Christians have never noticed that while the Jews were preparing to eat the Passover just after they had crucified Yahushua/Jesus [Joh 18:28], Yahushua/Jesus had already eaten his a day before [Mt 26:19]. Hence column 1-3/row 1-2 on "the Messiah’s last days" table.
The Sabbath day that came immediately after the death of Yahushua/Jesus was not the regular Saturday Sabbath but was a high day Sabbath. Though it is recorded that the day after Yahushua/Jesus died was a Sabbath day [Luk 23:54; Mar 15:42], nevertheless, that Sabbath day was not the regular weekly Saturday but was a high Sabbath day [Joh 19:31]. What is a high day you ask? A high day is a Jewish feast holy convocation day when no work was to be done also just like is the case with the weekly Sabbath day, it is called a high day because it was an ordinary day that nevertheless required a Sabbath day rest treat. A high day/holy convocation day can fall on any day of the week, [Lev 23:1-44]; since no work was to be done on a high day, the Jews couldn’t possibly therefore have held their Passover on that high day obviously but after it. Hence column 1-3/row 1-3 on "the Messiah’s last days table".
Daniel in [Dan 9:27] revealed that the Messiah would be killed in the midst of the week. TheTrueacademy asks what day is the middle of the week. Friday or Wednesday? Hence column 1- 4/row 1-5 on "the Messiah’s last days" table.
Yahushua/Jesus said in [Mt 12:38-40] that the only sign he’d
give to prove that he was and is truly the Messiah was to die and be in the grave for 3 days and 3 nights just like
Jonah was in the belly of the fish. After which he would resurrect bodily. He even before that made it clear that
there are 12 hours in a day (sunlight hours [Joh 11:9]) so as to maybe give us a yardstick for the proper counting of
his time in the grave. So if Yahushua/Jesus declared that there are 12 hours in a day, he is therefore insinuating that
there would also be 12 hours in a night to make a 24 hours whole day right?
For the Messiah who died on Wednesday to spend 3 days and 3 nights in the grave, he had to compulsorily rise on Saturday. Hence column 1-5/row 1-5 on "the Messiah’s last days" table.
Weirdly and unscripturally, The Jews begin their days at evenings (12 hrs. behind normal day-start time), so Friday when they ate their own Passover would have actually began on Thursday evening, just after the high Sabbath day of rest came to an end at 6pm. (They actually took 4pm as the practical beginning of their evenings, so the high day would have actually ended at about 4pm- the time they would begin killing their sheep for their Passover)
But then again, as Christendom teach, the Bible according to their interpretation reveals that he died on Friday (evening) and resurrected on Sunday (morning). Friday evening to Sunday morning cannot be 3 days and 3 nights but 2 days and 2 nights instead. Take your time to do the counting.
All the gospel account do report that the women approached the tomb just
before the dawning of the first day of the week (Sunday) and found the grave empty [Mt 28:1-6; Mar 16:1-6; Luk 24:1-6; Joh 20:1-5]. Did you get it? The grave was already empty before Sunday dawned. Since God’s day begins
with morning at 6am and not with night at 12am like ours (day 1 of Genesis began with light or day and not
darkness or night [Gen 1:3-5]. A tomorrow begins with morning as seen in [Est 2:14; Zep 3:3] and also, John reveals
that the first day of the week started with morning and ended with evening or dark as seen in [Joh 20:19]),
it then obviously means that the Messiah would have of course risen before that very Sunday- the Messiah precisely rose on Saturday (evening), it couldn’t have been any other day because for the Messiah who died on Wednesday to spend 3 days and 3 nights in the grave, he had to compulsorily rise on Saturday and not Sunday. Hence column 1-5/row 1-6 on "the Messiah’s last days" table.
Due to feast activities, the women only had time to anoint the Lord’s body once before he resurrected. The
women quickly wrapped the Lord’s body up and placing it in the tomb on the evening of his killing because the high
Sabbath which began at 6pm that day and which required them not to do any work whatsoever drew near [Lev 23:5-7] they never had the time to properly anoints the Lord’s body from then till the day they discovered the
Messiah was risen. Christians have never asked why the women had to wait until after the Messiah had risen to
come and anoint his body, had these women forgotten their Messiah so soon? Of course not. Looking at "the
Messiah’s last days table", it gets pretty obvious that the women after laying Christ in the tomb were thereafter
privileged with only one day as a free day to return back to the tomb for the Lord’s body anointing. That day was a
Sunday. Hence column 1-6/row 1-6 on "the Messiah’s last days" table.
The long undiscovered truth is that Yahushua/Jesus recognized a different Nissan 14 than that of the Jews because he used the scriptural solar calendar (now called the Essen Qumran calendar) while the Jews used the unscriptural luni-solar Babylonian calendar which they still use to this present day.
|Event||Event description 1||Day name||Day name||Event description 2||The women|
|Row1||The last supper
|On God’s Passover day
|Unknown until point 4, 5 and 6.||Tuesday|
|Row2||The Lord’s crucifixion||Day after his Passover
|Unknown until point 4, 5 and 6.||Wednesday||Night 1 of Christ in the grave.||The Jews begin their high day by 6pm
|Row3||The high Sabbath day||Not a Saturday
|Unknown until point 4, 5 and 6.||Thursday||Day 1/night 2 of Christ in the grave.||The women keeping the high day of rest (wherein no work was to be done) till 6pm when they began their Passover.|
|Row4||The Jew’s Passover||Occurred on a day after Messiah’s Passover, death and also after the high day
|Unknown until point 4, 5 and 6.||Friday||Day 2/night 3 of Christ in the grave.||The Jew’s Passover ends by 6pm after which the women most likely quickly went to buy the spices.|
|Row5||The Lord rises||Saturday||Unknown until point 4, 5 and 6.||Saturday||Day 3/night 3 of Christ in the grave. Christ rose just as the evening began (at 6pm thereabout).||The women keeping the Sabbath day of rest which ended by 6pm. But because it was already dark, the women thought to arrive the tomb as early as possible the next morning.|
|Row6||Sunday||The Lord is already risen of course.||As you can see, the women very well had their Lord in mind throughout because they arrived the tomb very early even before Sunday dawned but nevertheless found the tomb empty
|Essen Qumran solar calendar||The Babylonian luni-solar calendar|
|Revealed by Enoch of [Gen 5:24] in his book- the book of Enoch, which the Church left out of the Bible.||Instituted by Babylon and learnt by the Israelites when they were held captives in Babylon for 70 years.|
|A solar calendar which rightly makes the sun the greater light.||A luni-solar which unscripturally makes the moon the greater light.|
|Days begin with light/mornings by 6am.||Days begin with darkness/evenings by 6pm.|
|Passover always fell on a Tuesday "on a perfect year".||Passover could fall on any day.|
30 AD when Yahushua/Jesus really died was the year when Passover according to the Qumran calendar fell 2 days just before Passover according to the Babylonian calendar (Jesus ate his Passover on Tuesday evening and the Jews ate theirs on Thursday evening)
The gospel writers of course knew about the existence of these 2 calendars in Israel for it went without saying and so this dual-calendar system didn’t have to be explained to anybody, and so they just wrote the gospels intercalating these 2 calendars without indicating wherever a switch was made. This created the unintended confusion a 21st century Bible reader who has no knowledge of the dual-calendar system used in the time of Yahushua/Jesus faces when he reads the gospel accounts.
Consequence of this information
It is clear that since Yahushua/Jesus did not eat his Passover meal the same time as the Jews, he and the Jews couldn’t therefore have been using the same calendar. Of what value is this information you may ask? It so happens that it is the truth of Israel’s dual-calendar system that explains why the birthday (Christmas), death day (Good-friday) and the resurrection day (Easter-sunday) of Yahushua/Jesus remains a subject of conspiracy in Christendom till date. It is the knowledge of this dual-calendar use that explains why Yahushua/Jesus who though revealed to us that he would be in the grave for 3 days and 3 nights, still got his message twisted by the church, a church which got so confused with interpreting scripture that they just blindly- without wisdom, concluded that Friday to Sunday must be 3 days and 3 nights in some way, pathetic.
Well Yahushua/Jesus cannot all at the same time stay in the grave for 3 days and 3 nights and also for 2 days and 2 nights. It is either one or the other. This is the doctrinal error of the time in grave as well as the doctrinal error of the proof of Yahushua/Jesus’ deity. But wisdom has shown that this so-called doctrinal error is not one introduced into the Bible by any external agent but one that actually arises from the incorrect interpretation of the Bible which proved that there were actually 2 calendar systems being used in Yahushua/Jesus times.
A Simple question for the church about the day of the Messiah's death
- If the scripture reveals that the Messiah will be cut off (killed) in the midst of the week [Dan 9:27], how then does Friday (the 6th day of the week) become the midst of the week when the Messiah was supposedly killed according to the church?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answer on my email or Facebook inboxes.
Yahushua/Jesus revealed that except a man be born of water and the spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God [Joh 3:5]. While the spirit is the Holy Spirit, the water is baptism. And the Bible reveals that there are 2 types of baptism:
- That before the resurrection of Yahushua/Jesus
- The baptism after the resurrection of Yahushua/Jesus
performed by John the Baptist which was merely a water baptism of repentance [Mt 3:11; Acts 19:4; Mar 1:4] and could not really save anyone from sin but was only done to publicly prove that the people who had previously committed grievous sins had turned from their ways in repentance. This baptism could not save from sin because it lacked the Spirit (the Holy Spirit) which Yahushua/Jesus in [Joh 3:5] revealed could grant men eternal life in the kingdom of God.
specifically after the day of Pentecost. This is the one instituted by Yahushua/Jesus. This one perfects John’s baptism by including the spirit as an extra constituent to John’s water baptism. Those who had already received water baptism received this spirit directly on the day of Pentecost. Those who had not received water baptism before Pentecost were then baptized ONCE with water which was inclusive of the now attached Holy Spirit. This is why Paul after the death of Yahushua/Jesus rightly said that THERE IS ONLY ONE BAPTISM NOW, not two [Eph 4:5].
- One baptism which is a water baptism that included water as well as the Holy Spirit.
- One water baptism that involved the immersion of one into water in the name of the Father, son and of the Holy Spirit [Mt 28:19] to immediately indwell one with the Holy Spirit. This is the baptism preached by Yahushua/Jesus and his disciples.
This is the one true baptism scripturally endorsed after the death and resurrection of Yahushua/Jesus.
The Church’s baptism
But then again there seems to be a contradiction, if you follow the church and see with their eyes, we yet see another type of baptism different from the one Yahushua/Jesus and his disciples taught. This one involves the laying on of hand on the one who had previously received water baptism (which is supposed to be the only baptism consisting of water and the Spirit) to impart in them the Holy Spirit (which they are supposed to have received already from water baptism), the proof of this activity then manifests as tongue speaking. This one the church calls the Holy Spirit baptism.
If there is only one baptism- the new Spirit-included water baptism, how come is the believer yet again given the Holy Spirit which he had already received in water baptism through what the church tags a Holy Spirit baptism? Could it be that the new water baptism lacks the inclusion of the Holy Spirit or could it be that one has to receive this Holy Spirit twice to be saved? This is the doctrinal error of baptism.
But this so-called doctrinal error is not one introduced into the Bible by evil men, but actually arises from the incorrect interpretation of the Bible which proves that the receiving of the Holy Spirit by the laying on of hands (which always comes after the saving water baptism) is not to baptize one with the Holy Spirit again but to empower one with the gift of the Holy Spirit so he or she can do supernatural exploits.
The Church unscripturally requires believers undergo 2 baptisms to be saved
The church believes if one doesn’t undergo the so-called Holy Spirit baptism and speak in tongues, one therefore does not have the Holy Spirit which Yahushua/Jesus was talking about in [Joh 3:5] and ultimately, one is not saved and cannot enter into the kingdom of God. This insinuates that the church does not believe that today’s water baptism includes the Holy Spirit and can save like [Acts 6:1-6] teaches. This belief of the church created what seemed to be a doctrinal error about baptism. It is all a matter of interpretation.
2 Simple questions for the church about baptism
- If scripture says there is only one baptism [Eph 4:5], how then does the church explain the Holy Spirit baptism received after water baptism? Could it be that there is another Holy Spirit in which the church believes in?
- If the 7 men chosen to be laid hands upon (to impart in them the gift of speaking in tongues of course) in [Acts 6:3-5] were already filled with the Holy Spirit (of course from water baptism) before they were laid hands upon, how then does the church explain where these 7 Holy Spirit-filled men got their Holy Spirit from?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answers on my email or Facebook inboxes.
Tongue speaking means speaking in many different "real languages" all at the same time. We have learnt that tongue speaking does not really stand as an evidence that the Holy Spirit has just indwelt a person even as the 12 on receiving the Holy Spirit in the upper room did not speak in tongue [Joh 20:22]. The indwelling of the Holy Spirit in a believer is already done during the process of water baptism though the church of course does not believe that. But tongue speaking is a special gift of the Holy Spirit uniquely received by the laying on of hands on the one who has already been saved by repentance, confession to God, and by water baptism.
Not many Bible readers notice this but there are actually two types of tongue speaking in the Bible:
- That of the 12 Apostles and
- That of Paul and his Apostles.
The tongue speaking of the 12 Apostles
- This one features the speaking of real human languages which therefore needs no interpretation for when Peter and the Apostles spoke their tongues, men from diverse tribes were said to understand (from what they heard themselves) that the Apostles were speaking about the wonderful works of the Lord [Acts 2:8-11].
- This one is given to edify men and not self for the speaker does not understand what he’s saying even as he doesn’t understand the many individual languages he is employing in his speech. This is why Peter and the 12 left their solitary place in the upper room and went outside to speak it to the people. It is said that 3,000 souls became saved as a result of this act [Acts 2:41], obviously because these 3,000 souls were convinced "by what they heard and understood themselves" that there must be a supernatural force behind this impossible act of many tongue speaking.
Paul's tongue speaking
- This one features unknown languages that cannot be understood by anyone and therefore needs an interpreter [1 Co 14:13; 1 Co 14:27-28].
- This one is spoken to edify self [1 Co 14:4] by speaking to God [1 Co 14:2] and not to men even though he doesn’t understand what he is saying [1 Co 14:4, 19].
Well Speaking in tongues cannot all at the same time be one consisting of real understandable languages needing no interpreter which is used to edify people, and also be one consisting of unknown languages needing an interpreter which is used to edify self. It can only be one or the other.
Wisdom screams that this doctrinal error is not one arising from the misinterpretation of text but one introduced into the Bible by evil men. It is one which observation and study has shown that an intelligent and deliberate attempt to infiltrate and corrupt the Bible is thriving. By whom precisely you may ask. The answer to that will be revealed as you stay with The Academy.
How the gift of tongues is passed on reveals one great deception of the Church
The Bible indicates that only the 12 Apostles can pass on this gift to other believers and that those who received it from the Apostles could not do same. How do we know this? Remember the 12 Apostles laid hands on a group of 7 men which included a man called Philip [Acts 6:1-6]. This act was not to impact any other thing on these men but to give them the power of tongue speaking. There then came a time when Philip went into Samaria to preach. He was able to convert some souls there and baptize them but when it then came to giving them the gift of tongue speaking which he obviously had, Philip could not do this [Acts 8:5-17] but was compelled to report to the 12 Apostles who were then in Jerusalem, Peter and John had to come all the way from Jerusalem to Samaria to do what Philip seemed not to be empowered to do. If Philip could pass this gift, why stress Peter and John this way or what do you think? Well the truth is that, only the 12 Apostles could pass on this gift. The Christians they imparted this gift with could not pass it on by any means whatsoever.
Do you see the deceit? This means that when the 12 Apostles died and the 1st generation Christians imparted with this gift followed suit, the gift of speaking in tongues officially and generally seized. If this gift then has seized, who are these Christians parading the world speaking in tongues today and how did they get their own tongue speaking gifts?
3 Simple questions for the church about tongue speaking
- If speaking in tongues is the only evidence that one has received the Holy Spirit, why then did the 12 Apostles not speak in tongues immediately Yahushua/Jesus blew to them the Holy Spirit in [Joh 20:22] but only after it came with power on the day of Pentecost [Acts 2:1-4], does it mean that the Apostles didn’t really receive the Holy Spirit in [Joh 20:22] but received something else?
- If the people whom the 12 Apostles spoke tongues to could hear for themselves what the Apostles were saying without needing any interpreter [Acts 2:8-11], how come don’t we hear what the tongue speakers of today say and why do they specially need interpreters?
- If speaking in tongues could only be transferred by the hands of the 12 Apostles [Acts 8:18; 6:1-6; 8:5-17], how then did these Christians of today receive their own powers to speak in tongues?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answers on my email or Facebook inboxes.
6THE NATURE OF GOD AND OF MAN
6A: THE NATURE OF GOD
The Christians teach that God is a trinity of Father, son and Holy Spirit but the truth is that God himself said he is one being [Deu 6:4]. So how do we reconcile these two professions? You will come to realize that the persons of the Father, son and the Holy Spirit are indeed "spiritually" the same one person as God (who knows himself best) stated and below are 5 steps to comprehensively grasp this fact:
- God is one person [Deu 6:4; Mar 12:29-32], making him one God.
- The one God is our Father [Isa 63:16; 64:8; Mal 2:10; Mt 6:9], making him God The Father.
- God The Father is holy [Lev 11:45], making him God the Holy Father.
- God the holy Father is spirit [Joh 4:24], making him God the Holy Spirit-Father
- God the Holy Spirit-Father is therefore the Holy Spirit.The Father and the Holy Spirit are the same one person. This is why the Holy Spirit has no personal name like the Father and the son because the Holy Spirit is literarily the same person as the Father. The Father has no body but is spirit and this is why spirit is used to represent the Father’s very presence [Psa 139:7-8]. The Father is spirit and if the spirit Father is holy, then the Father is the Holy Spirit. It is insane, ridiculous and embarrassing that the Christians can’t see this.
- The word of the Holy Spirit-Father is truth [Joh 17:17].
- The word of the Holy Spirit-Father which is truth was made flesh to become Yahushua/Jesus [Joh 1:14].
- Therefore Yahushua/Jesus, the word in flesh is the truth [Joh 14:6].
- The Holy Spirit of the Father is the spirit of truth [Joh 15:26; 14:16-17].
- If the Holy Spirit is the spirit of truth and Yahushua/Jesus is truth then it goes without saying that The Holy Spirit is the spirit of Yahushua/Jesus even as [Rom 8:9] said.
- If the Father is the Holy Spirit and the Holy Spirit is the spirit of Yahushua/Jesus, then Yahushua/Jesus becomes the body and the visible revelation of the Holy Spirit-Father [Joh 14:9].
- If the Father is the Holy Spirit and the Holy Spirit is the spirit of Yahushua/Jesus and Yahushua/Jesus is the body of the spirit holy Father, then Yahushua/Jesus who isn’t of course physically one with the Father (for the Father has no body) is rather "spiritually" one with the Father and is "spiritually" the same person as the Holy Spirit-Father [Joh 17:11; 22-23; 10:30].
If any mystery exists in the Godhead, it would particularly exist in the person of Yahushua/Jesus; for Yahushua/Jesus was both the Father (spiritually) and the son (physically) therefore he was fully deity and fully man. On the Messiah visibly lied all the mystery of God.
- God is the alpha and omega [Rev 1:8; 21:6]
- The first and the last [Rev 1:17; 2:8; 1:11]
- And also the beginning and the end [Rev 22:13]
- Who is also the root of David and the offspring of David [Rev 22:16]
- Who is the lion of Judah [Rev 5:5] and the lamb [Joh 1:29; 1:36]
- Who is also the Father and the son [Isa 9:6]
Wonderful indeed. Time will not permit us to discuss this topic conclusively, but you will be guided as to exactly where to acquire this knowledge from at the end of the lectures.
I know the Muslims must have begun to think that they of course understand the concept of one God, but look deeper, the Muslims indeed do not yet understand the concept of the one God of the Bible and so they too would have to keep paying attention.
The Muslims often ask, did Yahushua/Jesus ever confess that he was God and should be worshipped, the simple answer to that is yes but nevertheless, Muslims need to understand that the fact that Yahushua/Jesus is God does not mean he is the one to be worshipped. Some Christians need to get this too. God the Holy Spirit-Father was the very one who covered himself with flesh to become the Yahushua/Jesus we know today without him ceasing to be God the Holy Spirit-Father for spirit is infinite and cannot be divided into smaller parts, God The Father in his spirit form is the true form of God [Joh 4:24] and the one who should be worshipped, God The Father in his human form is the humbled form of God who must be subjective to the true form of God and should therefore worship the true form of God [Joh 17:3]. All men must worship God. This is the simple reason why the Messiah being God in flesh yet worshipped God in spirit. It’s not rocket science.
- Jesus said he existed before Abraham was, [Joh 8:58].
- Jesus said seeing him is seeing the Father [Joh 14:6-7].
- Jesus forgave sins like God does [Mt 9:2-6].
- Jesus revealed that he is one with the Father [Joh 10:30] (spiritually that is).
- Jesus said he is the Father (He) [Joh 8:19-28] (spiritually that is).
- Jesus says he would be sitting on the throne with his 12 Apostles [Mt 19:28; 25:31; Luk 1:32; Rev 1:7-8] and [Rev 4:5] proves that it is Yahushua/Jesus who is on the throne that speaks in [Rev 1:4]. In [Rev 4:2], John beholds one throne. Yahushua/Jesus on the throne utters that he is the alpha and the omega [Rev 21:5-6] and vows to be our God in [Rev 21:7].
- In the beginning was Yahushua/Jesus (spiritually), and Yahushua/Jesus was with God (spiritually) and Yahushua/Jesus was God (spiritually) [Joh 1:1]. He only became physically God when he was begotten.
- Jesus worked miracles (healing the lame and raising the dead) without praying to no God and did these in the name of no one like we do [Luk 5:23-26; Joh 11:43-44].
- The scripture literarily says that Yahushua/Jesus is the Father himself [Isa 9:6] (of course spiritually).
- John called Yahushua/Jesus the embodiment of the Holy Spirit-Father [Joh 3:34; Mt 28:19].
- In Yahushua/Jesus dwelled the fullness of the Godhead bodily [Col 2:9]. The Godhead there doesn’t refer to a trinity but to the One Holy Spirit-Father.
- Thomas upon his awakening called Yahushua/Jesus his Lord (master) and his God (creator) [Joh 20:28]
- Jesus is said to be the Great God (creator) [Tit 2:13] and also the savior (master) [2 Pe 1:1].
- Jesus said to be from everlasting [Mic 5:2].
- Jesus said to exist before John the Baptist [Joh 1:15, 30].
- Jesus the Lord is referred to as the Holy Spirit himself [2 Co 3:14-17].
- Finally, if critics think the Bible never portrayed Yahushua/Jesus as God, what then was the reason the Bible gave for his crucifixion?, the Bible says he was accused of blasphemy, for calling himself God [Joh 10:32; Mt 26:65], plain enough isn’t it?
There is a trinity doctrine taught by the Bible and this doctrine of the trinity is indeed the very foundation of Christianity itself. You cannot help but agree with us that this is plainly revealed in [1 Jn 5:7], but that said, both the Christians, Jews and Muslims need to understand that the doctrine of the trinity as laid out in [1 Jn 5:7] does not speak of the physiological nature of God like the Christians have wrongly thought for hundreds of years but it speaks of his attributive nature, it speaks of 3 aspects of one God as he relates to our salvation. Read that again, the biblical trinity speaks of 3 revelations or aspects of one God and not one God in 3 persons.
The Christians read [1 Jn 5:7] and point out that 3 persons of the Father, son and the Holy Spirit are identified as
the 3 that bear record in heaven but when you look deeper, you quickly realize that John never really wrote that
these 3 AGREE AS one as the church believes but said these 3 ARE one. John further rids off all doubt regarding the
oneness of God as if on a desperate attempt to make things clear to a confused church when he wrote in the next
verse [1 Jn 5:8] about the fact that the 3 who bear witness on earth all agree in one.
Now the big question is this, if John really wanted to paint the picture of a Godhead of 3 persons, and very well knew how to express this seeing that he used the expression agree in one for something else in a verse just preceding the so-called trinity verse, why then didn’t he just write that the Father, word and the holy ghost all agree in one but rather wrote that these three are one? Well that’s because the Hebrew James knew the Father so well and very well knew what he was doing when he omitted that (trinity insinuating phrase) and wouldn’t even write to make us develop the notion that the Godhead was a family of 3 persons, and that is exactly why he used a different expression- these 3 are one, to describe the Godhead because he knows that God is one [Deu 6:4]. It would take a desperate mistranslation attempt to make James’ one-God-person to mean a 3-God-persons and this is what the church has shamefully done.
The dilemma the Church can’t seem to solve
The church came across a dilemma, they seemingly saw three people that are actually one and didn’t know how to resolve the puzzle, so they took the easy route concluding out of hopelessness, confusion and desperation, that these 3 persons must be one in agreement and not really in person forgetting that the Lord who is the same yesterday, today and forever had said he is one God [Deu 6:4]. Let’s not be so childish and petty in the face of hopelessness and confusion but let us engage the first teacher. How do you successfully resolve a case of 3 seeming persons yet said to be one as seen in [1 Jn 5:7] and [Deu 6:4]? Wisdom says that the only way both statements can be true is if the 3 persons are simply 3 revelations of aspects of one God. There you go. And to add to the clarification, did any one notice that John on referring to the Father, son and the Holy Spirit in [1 Jn 5:7] never even said THERE ARE 3 PEOPLE but simply said THERE ARE 3? As if he was desperately trying his best not to give us any reason to begin to think about God as being a plurality. This is the right interpretation of James statement and the exposure of the true doctrine of the trinity.
The true trinity as taught in [1 Jn 5:7] is about
- Revelation and not essentiality.
- It’s about attribute and not physiology.
- The true trinity is about one God revealing himself in 3 ways so as to function in 3 different capacities and not about 3 actual gods who agree as one.
It wasn’t really that hard after all. Just open your mind and don’t be so rigid. The biblical trinity speaks of 3 revelations of aspects of one God and not one God in 3 persons.
- God as Father is the creator of all spirits [Num 16:22; 27:16].
- God in flesh is the literal savior of mankind [Luk 2:11].
- And God as Holy Spirit is the power of God given to the saved mankind [Acts 1:8; 10:38].
4 Simple questions for the church about the nature of God
- If the Holy Spirit is a different person from the Father
Why doesn’t he have a personal name like the Father (Yahuah) and the son (Yahushua)?
- And why is he excluded from all the greetings in the epistles of both the head Apostle Peter [1 Pe 1:3; 2 Pe 1:2]?
- And all the greetings in the epistles of the man the church takes as the greatest Apostle- Paul [Rom 1:7; 1 Co 1:3; 2 Co 1:2; Gal 1:3; Eph 1:2; Php 1:2; Col 1:2; 1 Th 1:1; 2 Th 1:2; 1 Tim 1:2; 2 Tim 1:2; Tit 1:1; Php 1:3; Heb 1:1-2]?
- If [2 Co 3:14-17] says: But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in
the reading of the Old Testament; which vail is done away in Christ. But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the
vail is upon their heart. Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away. Now the Lord is that
Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.
And the church says: the Holy Spirit is not the spirit of Yahushua/Jesus.
How then does the church answer this question?
Since the veil is done away in Christ [2 Co 3:14] and he is the Lord [2 Co 3:16], is [2 Co 3:17] therefore referring to Yahushua/Jesus as the spirit of the Lord?
- If you answer no, then you disagree with these scriptures.
- If you answer yes, then you have just admitted that Yahushua/Jesus is the Holy Spirit.
Think please before you answer this question and take your time; I’ll wait for the answers on my email or Facebook inboxes.
6THE NATURE OF GOD AND OF MAN
6B: THE NATURE OF MAN
The Christians teach that man is a tripartite being consisting of spirit, soul and body. This wasn’t hard for them to come up with seeing that they had already made God (in whose image we were supposedly created) to be a trinity. They teach that man is a spirit with a soul and living in a body (I can remember being confused about this and asking my pastor to identify for me the one of this three who is truly me), but the truth is that the Bible itself teaches that man is indeed one being [Gen 2:7; 1 Co 15:45] - a living soul. So how then can we reconcile these two professions? Well, we will come to realize that the spirit, soul and body of man are spiritually the same one being and below are 5 steps to comprehensively grasp this fact:
- Spirit and heart mean the same one thing [Deu 2:30; Jos 5:1; 1 Sa 1:15].
- Spirit/heart and mind mean the same one thing for if [Psa 143:4] and [Rom 2:29] prove that heart and spirit are the same one thing and [Mt 15:18-19] together with [Psa 139:23] proves that heart and mind means the same one thing, then the intelligent mind must agree that spirit, heart and mind must all mean the same one thing. Spirit, heart and mind are simply different ways of looking at the same one inner man. Spirit, heart and mind simply speaks of the entirety, emotion and mentality of the one inner-man respectively.
- Spirit/heart/mind and soul mean the same one thing: Soul is heart and heart is soul even as taught by the scripture [Luk 2:35; Deu 6:4-5; Psa 24:3-4; Acts 4:32; 3 Jn 1:2; Mt 10:28; 1 Sa 1:15; Jdg 10:16; 16:16-17; 1 Ch 22:19]. This is why the scripture can conclude that mind heart and soul mean the same one thing [Mt 22:37].
Scripture teaches us that soul has a dual meaning for soul is another word for a bodily person. The portion of scripture that first introduces us to this understanding is [Gen 2:7]; it makes us understand that man only became a living soul when the breath of life was put into him by God. This is to say that before the man received that breath of life, he was obviously what? He was obviously of course a dead soul. Dead soul? Yea- dead soul. This is where the light bulb comes on. A dead soul is a dead body without life. It’s that simple, don’t make it complicated. Soul there means a bodily person even as backed up by numerous scripture [Lev 5:1-2; Acts 27:37; 7:14; 3:23; 2:41; 43; 4; 16:31; 17:11-12; Job 7:11; 10:1; 12:10; 19:2; 1 Ki 17:21-22; Job 23:13; 16:2, 10; 22:29; 30:3; Gen 12:13; 27:25; 42:21; Gen 46:15; Jdg 16:16-17; 1 Sa 1:26; 18:1; 2 Sa 13:39; Psa 49:15; 56:13; 66:9; 86:13; Psa 97:10; 107:18; Pro 3:22; Gen 2:7; Jer 5:29; 1 Pe 3:20;Gen 46:18; Jos 11:11; Acts 27:37; Rom 13:1; Isa 29:8]
The church says souls are immaterial only, but If souls are really only immaterial and are not bodily beings:
- How can they eat and drink [Luk 12:19; Lev 7:18]?
- And how can they die [Rev 16:3; 6:9-11; Jos 10:28, 39; 11:11; Rev 20:4]?
If souls can’t die like the church wants us to believe, how come is it said that 8 souls were saved from a flood [1 Pe 3:20]? What we are learning now is an understanding the church has ignored for thousands of years. Soul has a dual meaning, the bodily aspect of a being which can be harmed and killed [Jas 5:20] and the emotional aspect of a being which death cannot harm [Mt 10:28], rather than be quick to judge with a bias seeing what we want to believe in the scripture, let us apply wisdom and study to find out what the scripture is really saying. You cannot fully grasp the scripture if you are fond of always reading it out of its context. The summary here is that while spirit always refers to the immaterial aspect of man, soul doesn’t because the word soul has 2 meanings.
The first of the only two valid Bible references the church always pull out to justify man as being a spirit with a soul and living in a body is [1 Th 5:23]. Using this scripture as proof for spirit and soul meaning separate things doesn’t hold water because the conjunction "and", is not always used like a divider to link separate things as we see for example, in the case of heart (spiritual) and flesh (physical) in [Psa 84:2]. "And" can also be used like a mirror to image the same things such as heart and spirit [Psa 77:6] or flesh and skin [Lam 3:4], even as seen in many other Bible verses. [Gen 26:5; Jer 16:21; 2 Sa 22:3; 1 Ki 3:14; 1 Ch 28:7; Est 5:7; Job 13:17; 13:23; 16:19, Psa 25:18; 27:2; Psa 40:17; 51:3; 51:15; 66:14; 69:19; Isa 48:5; Jer 42:18; Exo 7:3; 16:28].
If [1 Th 5:23] is proving to us that man is actually 3 in 1, then you are also forced to agree that [Mar 12:30] is teaching us that man is actually 4 in 1. Do you believe that too? The biblical meaning and use of the conjunction "AND" is dual in nature, anyone with wisdom can obviously see that "and" has been used like a mirror to show sameness between two things (heart and spirit/flesh and skin) as well as like a divider to show separateness between two things (heart and flesh).
- We’ll call the use of "and" to introduce two separate things (e.g. heart and flesh) the divider meaning.
- And the use of "and" to introduce the same one thing but in two forms (heart and spirit/flesh and skin) the mirror meaning.
The second of two major Bible references the church always pull out to justify man as being a spirit with a soul and living in a body is [Heb 4:12]. Using the dividing concept to explain [Heb 4:12] as a proof for spirit and soul being two separate things that are joined as one doesn’t hold water because the same verse also speaks about the dividing of joint and marrow. This creates a problem because joint and marrow are obviously not two separate things that are joined as one. (For joints though separate from marrows are yet not joined to marrows). Joints are joined to other joints and marrows on the other hand are not joined to anything, they are soft red or yellow fatty tissue that fills the central cavities of bones. The logical conclusion to make is to say that Paul is not talking about dividing two separate things that are joined (spirit to soul or marrow to joint) but splitting single individual things (spirit or soul or marrow or joint) into parts.
So if Paul is not using the divider meaning (separateness) of "and" here when referring to spirit and soul or joint and marrow, it goes to mean that he is using the mirror meaning (sameness). For the Bible only has two meanings for the word- "and", either it is showing separateness or it is showing sameness.
In what way then is joint and marrow/spirit and soul same? The sameness in joint and marrow is that they are both of physicality (of the flesh and of skin) [Lam 3:4]. The sameness in spirit and soul is that they are both of spirituality. It is easy to agree that Physicality has many forms e.g. flesh, skin, joint, marrow etc. but most cannot clearly see that spirituality has many forms also e.g. spirit, soul, heart and mind. So Paul is basically using "and" to show sameness as he speaks about the word of God being able to divide one spirituality into parts and one physicality into parts. He is rather speaking figuratively and only replacing these two broad concepts with their respective specific forms. He uses Spirit and soul to represent spirituality and uses joint and marrow to represent physicality. What [Heb 4:12] is saying is that even as joined as one spirituality and one physicality is, the word of God is yet sharp enough to split them into parts. Simple. Paul is rather preaching about the incredible unveiling and discerning power of the word of God and not about the nature of man being tripartite.
Spirit is soul and soul is spirit.
- This is why James can reveal that man is body and spirit only [Jas 2:26]
- With Paul himself also insinuating the same [1 Co 6:20]
- Even as also declared in [Num 16:22]
- And Moses further clearly stating that man is soul and body only [Isa 10:18]
- With John declaring the same thing [3 Jn 1:2]
- And with Yahushua/Jesus himself putting a final stamp to it [Mt 10:28].
We are bonded forever to our bodies just like the Holy Spirit-Father is eternally bonded to the son. The only time our spirit and bodies go separate ways is at death which is a result of sin just like the only time the Holy Spirit-Father left Yahushua/Jesus was at his dying on the cross after the sins of the whole world had been placed on him [Mt 27:46]. Christians want to totally canalize the body and make it literarily stand for sin as if after death and in heaven, they won’t be given back their so-called carnal body (however in a glorified state) to continue life in it for eternity in heaven. The Holy Spirit-Father and Yahushua/Jesus are spiritually one though dual in form. Our spirits and our bodies are also spiritually one though dual in form for we were created in God’s image. The critics and skeptics of biblical Christianity however, who say Christians worship many gods are blinded by the forms of the one God (this also goes for the one man) and can’t see that behind these 2 forms is one life and consciousness- the real being.
A Simple question for the church about the nature of man and of God
- If spirit and soul don’t refer to the same one thing and if man is a tripartite being because God himself is tripartite, then will the fact that the scripture reveals to us that Yahuah, the Father yet has a spirit and a soul [Mt 12:18], make us abandon our trinity of God doctrine now and add (soul) to (Father, son and Holy Spirit) so as to arrive at a Godhead of 4 persons?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answer on my email or Facebook inboxes.
This false belief of the church that God and mankind are both tripartite in being created what seemed to be a doctrinal error about the nature of God and of man. It is all a matter of interpretation.
Rapture is a church term for referring to the taking of believers by God to be with him in heaven so as to escape the tribulation brought to earth by the Anti-christ. Nevertheless, we need to understand that though the scripture teaches a rapture, the word rapture however is nowhere found in scripture, what the church calls rapture, the Bible calls redeeming [Rev 5:9; 14:3-4].
Not many Bible readers notice that there are actually 2 types of rapture/redeeming preached in the Bible.
- One where a selected number of believers are redeemed and
- Another where the entire church is redeemed.
Yahushua/Jesus in [Mt 24:40-42] described how the rapture/redeeming would take place, but in the book of revelation, he makes it known by 3 obvious proofs that not the entire body of believers would be raptured/redeemed:
- Yahushua/Jesus in [Rev 1:20] divided the general and universal body of Christ into 7 churches. Though the names of these 7 churches were made to reflect the names of the 7 churches that had been established in John’s time in Asia, Yahushua/Jesus however used these 7 churches symbolically to represent the general and universal church at every given time. He further made it known that not all of these churches would be redeemed/raptured. The only church that he promises to hide (by redeeming) from seeing the tribulation which he called the hour (time) of temptation is the church of Philadelphia [Rev 3:10] and this promise is exclusive only to this church (or better yet people who display similar qualities as this church).
- The Lord promises to raise in the last days and at the time of the Anti-christ two prophets to preach his word [Rev 11:3]. Note that the tribulation at the time of the Anti-christ only lasts for three and a half years [Rev 11:2; 13:5], meaning that these prophet who would at least be of average ages (at the time of the Anti-christ) wouldn’t have been born in the reign of the Anti-christ but will actually live to see the Anti-christ come. What we are saying is that these 2 men being though believers will yet not be redeemed/raptured but live to see the tribulation. They will die in the tribulation by being killed but they’ll be given life again after three and half days and then be redeemed/raptured into heaven [Rev 11:7-13]. So though they are saints, yet, their own rapture comes after the tribulation itself and after their death.
- Lastly, the book of revelation reveals that a group of 144,000 men (12,000 each) from the 12 tribes of Israel (excluding the tribe of Dan) will be sealed on their heads [Rev 7:3-4], not really so they can be redeemed/raptured but so as to be made to come out of the tribulation as saints martyred for their witnessing of Yahushua/Jesus (by beheading most probably) [Rev 20:4]. They are the ones that will not worship the beast or his image nor receive his mark but will stand boldly for the truth in the last days [Rev 20:4]. The Bible sometimes refers to them as the remnant [Rev 12:17] (maybe because 144,000 is such a small number compared to the world population of Christians today). The few ones remaining and not yet martyred were the ones who gave glory to God after the 2 witnesses were raptured [Rev 11:3]. As you can see, they entered the tribulation time as saints, saw the tribulation and were not redeemed/raptured to escape it. So the redeeming/rapture according to Yahushua/Jesus does not describe the taking away of the entire church but only a selected few of the believers and the word "rapture/redeem" does not apply only to the living but also to the dead like the church teaches.
Paul is the endorser of the type of rapture where the entire church is redeemed.
But there is yet another type of rapture preached in the Bible, this time by Paul. One which describes the taking of the entire church at one single time and moment so as to escape the tribulation. Paul reveals that we (the believers) shall not all sleep (die) but shall all (both dead and alive) be changed in the twinkle of an eye [1 Co 15:51-52].
Well the redeeming/rapture cannot all at the same time entail both the following: that a selected few from the church will be raptured at successive times and also that the entire church will be redeemed/raptured at the same one time. It can only be one or the other. This is the doctrinal error of the rapture.
Wisdom reveals that this doctrinal error is not one arising from the misinterpretation of the Bible text but is one deliberately and intelligently introduced into the Bible to corrupt it. By whom in particular you may ask? The answer to that will be revealed as you stay with The Academy.
Simple question for the church
- If the rapture really refers to the taking of the entire church into heaven so they do not see the great tribulation,
and the scripture refers to those who will be keeping the commandment of God even as they reverence Christ as
Messiah (after the man child had been caught up to heaven [Rev 12:5] as the remnant [Rev 12:17].
Who then is this man child caught up to heaven?
- And who are the remnants who gave glory to the Father after the great earthquake hit the land in the great tribulation [Rev 11:13]?
Take your time; I’ll wait for the answers on my email or Facebook inboxes.
Not many Christians know that there exists two type of tithing today:
- The scriptural one which refers to tithe as food only [Lev 27:30, 32; Deu 14:22] initially paid in three installments [Num 18:21-24], [Deu 14:22-27] and [Deu 14:28-29] but now has been reduced to one as we will see soon.
- And that of the church which refers to tithe as money which is to be paid in just one installment. A tithe the church backs up with only one of the many existing verses that actually speak about tithe [Mal 3:10].
The law of tithing endorsed by the Lord
The scriptural law of tithing is of course endorsed by God and the easiest way to explain God’s law of tithing is to lay it out in 10 comprehensive points:
- What is tithe:
- Tithe paying began with the Mosaic Law:
- Tithe is food and never money:
- God purposely made tithe food and not money:
- Only farm owners pay tithes:
- God instituted 3 types of tithe:
- The new covenant did not turn tithe to money:
- The Levitical and feast tithes have both ceased in the new covenant:
- The poor tithe is the only tithe believers are to pay today:
- All tithes are offerings but not all offerings are tithes:
Tithing is a law of appreciation to God and charity to man, it is the giving of the tenth of your income back to God [Lev 27:32]; not only to show God appreciation for his physical blessings but also to make it possible for persons in need to be physically provided for. Basically, tithing was done by handing over the tithes to the Levites every year [Deu 14:22]. We know these tithes were given to the Levite because the Levites shared no inheritance with their Israelite brothers and they were fixed to work full time in the temple having no way of earning a living so tithing was instituted as God’s way to cater for them [Num 18:24].
Tithe unlike the church will tell you is not an eternal principle of God but is dependent on the Mosaic Law. Understand that the tithe Abraham gave (before the Mosaic Law was established) was voluntary [Gen 14:18-20]. And that the tithe Jacob gave (before the Mosaic Law was established) was voluntary [Gen 28:20-22]. God commanded tithing for the very first time in the Mosaic Law [Lev 27:30-34].
For those Christians who will say God commanded the Israelites to pay tithes as food then because they didn’t have money back then, we need to read [Gen 17:23; 42:25; Exo 30:16; Lev 27:15; Num 3:48, Deu 2:6] which proves that they did have money back then. Think about it, how could the man Abimelech give Abraham 1,000 pieces of silver if money was inexistent back then [Gen 20:16]? And how was Joseph sold to slavery for 20 pieces of silver if money was indeed inexistent back then [Gen 37:28]?
If tithe is your income in food form- of land produces (crops and flocks) and not money, it goes without saying that only those who owned farms were required to pay tithe and not fishermen, goldsmiths, tailors, carpenters, politicians, scribes and not even those who worked in the farms of those who owned them (because the produce of the land they work as laborers in, is not their income, their income is the money the owner of the farm pays them which cannot be classified as the produce of the land but money). Tithe was a means to tax the rich (farm owners) to feed the poor and not extorting the little the poor possessed, from their hands.
This is a tithe that is also called the Lord’s tithe. It is the only type of tithe the church teaches for reasons that are obvious. The tithe is paid every year to the Levites [Num 18:21-24] and is paid in association with the time of collecting the annual first fruits (of grain, wine and oil) giving as a heave offering to the Lord [Num 18:24]. It is paid so as to cater for the food needs of the temple-Levites because they were to all work full time in the temple and had been stripped of all inheritance with their other Israelite brothers and giving only a spiritual inheritance- God [Num 18:23; 18:20].
The Levites too paid tithes but they only paid tithes from the tithes they themselves received [Num 18:25-30], the Israelites did not only pay tithes to the Levites but the Levites themselves yet paid tithes to the high priest [Num 18:25-30]. Understand that the people never paid tithes directly to the Priests but did this through the Levites. The priests were of the children of Aaron (who was a Levite) only and not of the general stock of the Levites, so the Levites were to pay their own tithes to the priests (children of Aaron) from the tithes they themselves had recieved, afterwhich the priests would carry these tithes they had recieved into the storehouse of God [Neh 10:38].
However, there came a time the priests began to default in their divine responsibilty and were not filling up the storehouse with the tithes they recieved. Starting the case from [Mal 3:8-10] where God said some group of people were robbing him because they were not bringing the tithes to the storehouse does not make clear who these group of people are, stepping backward a bit to [Mal 2:1] is the wise move that makes us realise that God was specifically speaking to the priests afterall (and not the non Levites nor the non priests) who alone were responsible for filling up the storehouse with the tithes they had recieved from the Levites, and this instruction carried on up to the very end of Malachi chapter 3 where the church likes to begin the case from in a bid to imput fear in the minds of the brethren- accusing them falsely of robbing God.
Only the high priest paid no tithe because he represented Yahushua/Jesus who is the head of the church and our true high priest in heaven. The Levitical tithe was 10% of one’s increase paid every year and this was stored in the storerooms of the treasury [Neh 10:37-38]. Tithe is a charity tax and the Levitical tithe can be likened to government tax.
This is one tithe the brethren have probably never heard about, because they do not keep the feasts of God which they should. This tithe is paid once every year to the temple. It is paid so as to have refreshment and food for all Israelites whenever they came to Jerusalem for the feast of terbanacle [Deu 14:22-27]. Note that this is one type of tithe the payer could also eat. The feast tithe is another 10% of one’s increase which precisely is 10% of the remaining revenue after the 10% Levitical tithe has been paid. Note that this amounts to 20% of tithes every year for the Israelites. The first and the second types of tithes are spoken of here in [Deu 14:22-23]. Paying the feast tithe is no longer feasible because there is no more temple where it was required for this type of tithe to be payed and eaten. Tithe is a charity tax and the feast tithe can be likened to national feast tax.
3The poor’s tithe:
This is another type of tithe the brethren probably also know nothing about. This is the only type of tithe that is not paid to the Levites and the temple alone but is given to the poor in your residence- the strangers, Fatherless and the widows and also the Levites who were counted as poor for they had no land inheritance. Note that the Levites who receive this poor tithe are qualified to do so not really because they work full time in the temple but because they have been stripped of all land inheritance. This tithe is paid once every third year of a seven-year cycle [Deu 14:28-29; 16:12-15; Amo 4:4; Tobith 1:7-8].
In the 7-year cycle, no type of tithe is paid on the 7th year because the Isrealites were not permitted to till the land on this year so that in this year, it could not be possibly to pay any tithe which itself was and is food not money [Exo 23:11-12; Lev 25:4; Lev 25:20-22]. This type of tithe is obviously a social welfare and charity type of tithe paid to be used to cater for the less privileged. Social responsibility was not an option for God’s people for a total of 21 times, God commanded Israel to cater for the needy [Exo 22:21; Mal 3:5]. It was also 10% of income. Tithe is a charity tax and the poor’s tithe can be likened to the warfare program.
Even in Yahushua/Jesus’ days, tithing remained food because in [Mt 23:23], the tithes (mint, anise and cumin) Yahushua/Jesus accused the Pharisees of focusing on at the detriment of the weightier matters of the law were yet food (spices to be precise). So tithing didn’t change to money with Yahushua/Jesus’ coming.
Tithing was dependent on the Mosaic Law and the temple priesthood, if there is no more temple today but our bodies [1 Co 6:19] and we the saints are all priests (spiritual Levites) today [Rev 1:6], it subsequently means that paying of the Levitical and feast tithe that both required the temple is no longer feasible nor is it required.
The poor tithe is the only tithe believers today are
required to pay. 10% was paid to the poor which included the strangers, Fatherless, widows and the Levites in your
residence. The poor tithe today stands to be paid only to the strangers, Fatherless and widows (Levites can no longer be included here because there is no more temple and Levites are now free to work and acquire wealth). This type of tithe today is obviously not
dependent on the temple building but on your ability to still find the poor around you, a people which
Yahushua/Jesus said will never cease from being in the land [Deu 15:11; Mt 26:11].
Farm owners are expected by God to give out a 10th of their land produce every 3rd year (when the poor tithe was paid [Deu 14:28-29; 16:12-15; Amo 4:4; Tobith 1:7-8] to the poor and every other individual who has to give are expected by God to give offerings (not tithe) to the poor at any non-fixed time [Pro 21:13; 22:9; 19:17; 29:7; 28:27; 1 Jn 3:17-18], as you can see, none of the poor tithe compulsorily goes to the church or your pastor. This is why the church refused to reveal to you the truth about tithing today, simply because there was no way for them to benefit from your mandatory tithe today.
You can give your church whatever percentage of money you chose to give, but don't call any 10% of this money-offering tithe because tithe is food. And if we wish to change what God has made food into money just like the church has done, then we need to remember the command of God himself which says "What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it [Deu 12:32]".
The church in summary says that tithe is money and that all this money tithe must be brought in one installment to the church, dubiously quoting only one of the many verses that actually speak about tithe i.e. the famous [Mal 3:10].
Well tithing cannot all at the same time be one of food alone which was paid at three installments originally but reduced to one today, and also be one of money alone, paid at just one installment. It can only be one or the other. This is the doctrinal error of tithing. But wisdom says that this so-called error of tithing is not one introduced into the Bible by an external agent but one that has actually come from the incorrect interpretation of the Bible. It is all a matter of interpretation
6 simple questions for the church about tithe
- If tithes were given to the Levite priests because they had no inheritance [Num 18:24] and to the poor because they had nothing [Deu 14:28-29; 16:12-15; Amo 4:4; Tobith 1:7-8], why do pastors with inheritances and even jobs today demand for tithes?
- If pastors insist that they are the physical Levites of today, why then don’t they pay a tithe of the tithes they receive just as God demanded the Old Covenant Levite priests to do [Num 18:25-30]?
- If tithe is food and not money [Lev 27:30, 32; Deu 14:22; 2 Ch 31:5-6; Neh 13:12], why doesn’t the church collect food stuffs today as tithes but demand for money? Could it be so as to capture the income of both farmers and non-farmers thereby maximizing their income?
- If God himself has commanded that we should not add to or remove from his word according to [Deu 12:32], why then did the church change tithe from being food to money?
- If the church is not all interested in our money alone, why is the third time tithe (which cuts down the total tithe that comes into the church) [Deu 14:28-29; 16:12-15; Amo 4:4; Tobith 1:7-8] excluded from practice and the first time tithe (which brings the whole 10% of tithe) [Num 18:21-24] established?
- If the tithe of Abraham and Jacob were only voluntary [Gen 14:18-20] and [Gen 28:20-22] respectively and the only compulsory tithe is dependent on the Mosaic Law [Lev 27:30-34], a law the church believes has been abolished, why then still demand for tithes?
Take your time to answer these questions; I’ll wait for the answers on my email or Facebook inboxes.
The man called Paul
If you are a good observer, you’d have noticed that TheTrueacademy seems to have a bias towards the man Paul. Well it’s not a bias, it’s we observing and studying the words of the alive Bible (BBPPO) with wisdom. And here is not the place to discuss Paul for there is more about this man than the church knows or is willing to talk about, for now, we’ll just listen to some few words from the mouth of the alive Bible about this matter until time is created later on to conclusively discuss the subject.
- Yahushua/Jesus said even as it is written that man must live by every word that comes out from the mouth of the Lord [Mt 4:4].
- Yahushua/Jesus is the Lord-though in flesh [Joh 1:14], so the phrase: "every word" in Point 1 is invariably referring to all the words Yahushua/Jesus himself speaks.
- Yahushua/Jesus made it known that only the Apostles among every other men could and can rightly bear him witness, that he is true, specifically because they have been with him from the beginning [Joh 15:27]. (Notice that this statement justifies Peter’s action to lay down a qualification for Apostleship- to be one who has walked with Yahushua/Jesus from his baptism- the beginning of his ministry, to his ascension). This point means that in order of reverence, the words of the 12 Apostles who walked with the Messiah come next to those of the Messiah. If one at any time finds the words of Yahushua/Jesus confusing, that person is scripturally admonished to look first to the 12 Apostles before any other fellow.
- Yahushua/Jesus the Lord said if you love me, keep my commandments [Joh 14:15; 15:10], for those who are curious and ask, what commandments? The apostle John (one of the 12 who can authoritatively confirm the words of the Messiah) said the old one (the Mosaic Law) [1 Jn 2:7; 2:24; 3:11; 2 Jn 1:5-6].
- Just in case this statement of the Messiah and Apostle John is not clear enough still, John the Apostle, with the rest of the 11 (all of who can authoritatively confirm the words of the Messiah) most definitely accepted this word of the Lord as true and thereby caution us not to accept anyone who doesn’t [2 Jn 1:1-11]. So far so good, all seems to be going well.
- Out of the blue, Paul comes along and says that though all things are lawful for him, they are yet not expedient (necessary) for him, and he will personally not be brought under the power of any law [1 Co 6:12], thereby personally making the keeping of the law consequently OPTIONAL AND NOT NECESSARY. A seemingly cunning evil act the Messiah himself had once accused the Pharisees of exercising- working to make God’s law of non-effect [Mt 15:1-6].
- It is easy to disregard this observation as petty and futile because we read in [2 Tim 3:16] that all scripture were written by the inspiration of God, but have we noticed that nowhere in the Bible (BBPPO) were we ever told that all scripture were compiled into one book by the inspiration of God? Open your eyes people, for the scripture existed as separate scrolls when Paul made that statement in [2 Tim 3:16] only later becoming bound as one book called the Bible about 260 years later. Though this is just an introduction to the mission of the man called Paul, from here however, any wise soldier even if just 50% awoken, can begin to do the rest of the maths.
In summary, we have discovered that the Bible (BBPPO) though is scripture does not only contain addition, omission, number and translation errors but also has damning doctrinal errors like those concerning the gospel and baptism most especially.
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TheTrueacademy © 2018 The only Copyright we have is that you copy it right | designed by bizbuuk